We are moving to a very expensive West Coast housing market and are trying to figure out how to afford a house that we like. DH's father passed away unexpectedly about a decade ago, and DH received an inheritance in the high six figures. (His parents were divorced, and I expect he will get at least that much and probably more from his mother when she passes.) DH hasn't spent a penny of his inheritance yet, and I think it's reasonable for him to use some of it for purchasing a house when we move. He is refusing to consider spending any of the money because he assumes he will be completely financially responsible for his disabled brother when his mother passes away and he wants to save the money for that. His brother has severe mental illness (schizophrenia/psychosis) and lives with his mother. His mother is in good shape but is 80 years old. She is in complete denial about the severity of her son's illness and as far as we know has not made any provisions for his care or set up any special needs trusts, etc.. DH's brother has/will inherit a decent sum of money but DH assumes that his brother will be preyed upon/be unable to manage the money.
Over the course of our marriage I have received substantial financial support from my parents that have greatly benefited our family (help with a down payment on our current house, funding kids' private school and 529s, as well as cash gifts that I have used for house upgrades and family vacations). I hope it is many years away but I will inherit a sizeable sum when my parents pass and would not hesitate to use it to improve our family's quality of life. So I'm quite resentful that DH is unwilling to use any of his inheritance to benefit his wife and children. If his father had wanted to leave all of his money to DH's brother, then that's what he would have done. Obviously it was his father's wish that his estate was divided equally between his two children. Am I being unreasonable?
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