Is having an Orgasm absolutely necessary for conception?

[Anonymous]

Anonymous wrote:

Anonymous wrote:

Anonymous wrote:

Anonymous wrote:

Anonymous wrote:Not necessary. Misogynistic old men in positions of power make up sh!t like this in order to convince people that a girl or woman who gets pregnant couldn’t have been raped. Unless you believe the same, it’s best to clear this misconception (no pun intended) from your mind.

Yeah, first I laughed at the question, and then I was angry about the implications of people believing this.

+1000

Exactly. I'm rather horrified that this is being asked and the implications of believing that all pregnancies result from female orgasm.

Sorry for triggering. To answer the question though - on an empirical scientific basis it seems like yes O is correlated with better TTC outcomes. Agree/disagree?

I don’t know, but that is very different from “absolutely necessary.”

[Anonymous]

OP, if you’ve been having sex in the days leading up to ovulation for 7 months with no success another orgasm here or there is not going to be the thing that makes a difference. Book an appt to see a Dr. about fertility testing and options.

[Anonymous]

How has no one brought up IUIs? The dr does not get you off during the procedure FYI.

[Anonymous]

Wow. I am amazed at people here.

[Anonymous]

Anonymous wrote:I read that it helps the cervix suck up the semen. I unfortunately don’t always have success with it and I’ve also been trying for seven months and wondering if that’s been an issue. Has anyone gotten a BfP without it?

In vitro comes to mind..

[Anonymous]

Anonymous wrote:DCUM states that an orgasm is not necessary for conception but an orgasm is necessary for a happy marriage or divorce is imminent

[Anonymous]

Anonymous wrote:How has no one brought up IUIs? The dr does not get you off during the procedure FYI.

It is less relevant to this discussion because IUI bypasses the step in question, getting the sperm past the cervix. FYI.

[Anonymous]

Anonymous wrote:

Anonymous wrote:I get the science says it does not matter, but that’s the only difference I can figure in how my younger DD was conceived after 12 years of infertility.

You only had 1 orgasm in 12 years?!

Only 1 following sperm being deposited. Lots before sperm or with no sperm deposit.

[Anonymous]

Yes yes it is. Only pleasure for the woman actually results in conception. This is well known.

[Anonymous]

I didn't orgasm either conception but I was a lot more into the sex the second time around and we conceived a lot quicker. As in 4 months instead of 2 years. Coincidence perhaps.

[Anonymous]

Hmm. Why are women “taking care of themselves” after sex? Don’t you ask your man to take care of it?

[Anonymous]

Anonymous wrote:Not necessary. Misogynistic old men in positions of power make up sh!t like this in order to convince people that a girl or woman who gets pregnant couldn’t have been raped. Unless you believe the same, it’s best to clear this misconception (no pun intended) from your mind.

True, but we also know that misogynistic old men should not use orgasms as the litmus test for whether or not someone was raped. It’s a physiological response like sneezing. It doesn’t matter how your body responds if you did not give consent.

[Anonymous]

I've only heard that female orgasm can influence gender (can't remember if o=boy or girl)

[Anonymous]

Anonymous wrote:Yes yes it is. Only pleasure for the woman actually results in conception. This is well known.

I suppose female genital mutilation is an effective form of sterilization, then.

[Anonymous]

Good lord. I got pregnant twice wholly unplanned and peed immediately after sex. It just takes one, people