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Reply to "Compelling conversion is explicitly prohibited in Islam"
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[quote=Anonymous][quote=Anonymous][quote=Anonymous][quote=Anonymous][quote=Anonymous] Frankly, if Jizya is less than the zakat for muslims, and it exempts nonMuslims from military service yet still entitles them to the same protection, I would think nonMuslims have it a bit easier. Nothing oppressive in that.[/quote] Being treated as a second class citizen IS oppressive, and no one would claim that in an Islamic state, the status of Muslims is equal to that of non-Muslims. Islamic states very clearly and unapologetically privilege one over the other.[/quote] Please list the privileges Muslim citizens have over nonMuslim citizens in an Islamic State.[/quote] For one, an unconditional transfer of custody of children to the Muslim spouse in case of divorce. And considering that only men could marry non-Muslims in a Muslim state, and that divorce is incredibly easy for Muslim men, I'd say that's a clear privilege a Muslim has over a non-Muslim. [/quote] I will answer this only because it relates to the subject of the thread: http://islam.about.com/od/marriage/ss/stepstodivorce_5.htm The Sharia (Islamic Law) varies from country to country. And sometimes the Sharia can even contradict the Quran. It shoudn't but it does. For example, some Sharia may state that if a man and woman divorce, the wife must return her dowry and other gifts she received. The Quran explicitly prohibits this. This is precisely why the Sharia, to me, does not reflect TRUE Islam. If the Sharia contradicts the Quran, it's a red flag that it has deviated from what God intended. Child custody depends wholly on who is the better parent for the children, the age of the children, and in the Quran Allah asks that both parties decide amicably. Divorce[/quote]
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