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Sorry--meant to write below the bold above that was my thought exactly. If women find it hard for an imam to grant a request for divorce, which is what happens often in practice, that is not true Islam. So women have to spend years finding an imam who believes PP's interpretation of true Islam? But if men don't take custody, that's practice (as PP sees it--not what I've seen) then it doesn't matter what the Quran and true Islam say. |
He can take his wife back doesn't mean against her will. Where did it say that? And it cites the husband as taking the wife, because the opposite is not possible. A woman can't marry herself in Islam. You can't take your wife back against her will, forced marriages are invalid |
Right here. You can bring your own ruling if you wish. http://islamqa.info/en/75027 The wife’s consent is not a condition of taking her back after divorce The husband has the right to take his wife back and it is not essential that she agree to that, so long as he is taking her back within the ‘iddah of a first or second talaaq, because Allaah says (interpretation of the meaning): “And divorced women shall wait (as regards their marriage) for three menstrual periods, and it is not lawful for them to conceal what Allaah has created in their wombs, if they believe in Allaah and the Last Day. And their husbands have the better right to take them back in that period, if they wish for reconciliation. And they (women) have rights (over their husbands as regards living expenses) similar (to those of their husbands) over them (as regards obedience and respect) to what is reasonable, but men have a degree (of responsibility) over them. And Allaah is All-Mighty, All-Wise” [al-Baqarah 2:228] This verse points to the conditions of taking back the wife, which are: 1- That it applies to talaaq (divorce). If it is the matter of annulment of the marriage, the husband cannot take her back, because Allaah says “And divorced women”. 2- That it should be a revocable divorce, which can only be a first or second talaaq. The phrase “The divorce is twice” [al-Baqarah 2:229] refers to the divorce where it is possible to take back the wife. If the third talaaq takes place, then he cannot take her back unless she marries another husband in a genuine marriage, then he separates from her in a proper manner after consummating the marriage. 3- It should be within the ‘iddah period, because Allaah says “And their husbands have the better right to take them back in that period” i.e., during the ‘iddah. If the ‘iddah comes to an end and he wants to take her back, that is only possible with a new marriage contract and mahr. 4- By taking her back, he should not intend to harm her, rather he should intend to reconcile and set things straight, because Allaah says “if they wish for reconciliation”. If he intended to harm her, she has to prove that to the shar’i judge so that he may rule as he sees fit. The verse clearly indicates that the wife has no choice in the matter if the husband wants to take her back, and she has no right to refuse to go back to him, because Allaah says “And their husbands have the better right to take them back”. Even if she does not go back to his house, if he says he takes her back and brings witnesses to that, then he has in fact taken her back. |
That's unfortunate for your niece, but really KSA? You do know that they are not the beacon of Islamic enlightenment and this is not the norm in the Muslim world. Now as far as your simplistic argument about practice/texts, it just shows how little you know about Islam. Of course the Quran supersede practice. Newsflash for you, there is nothing in the Quran about child custody, so the texts im referring to when talking about custody are hadiths and shariah I-e Islamic jurisprudence which is man-made so not set in stone. Shariah changes according to context, time and place. Now When I cited texts earlier and said the text said so , I was referring to the Quran since divorce is discussed in the Quran, the is an entire chapter about it, so in the case of divorce shariah can't supersede the Quran. |
This is why it is dangerous to learn Islam by using Sheikh Google or reading Islam for dummies. I'm not going to play this game with you. I can bring you a hundred of other sites that will say the opposite of what you just quotes. Here is just one:
Source: http://www.questionsonislam.com/question/unable-accept-khula-wife Do you know who writes the answers on islam q/a? I have read throughout the years many things on that site that make no sense whatsoever. This is why whenever Muslims have a disagreement on a ruling, we have to go back to the source which is the Quran. Why do you think scholars have been debating Fiqh for the past centuries? Because Islamic jurisprudence is complex on matters that are not clear in the Quran, scholars debate these things for years and more often than not do not agree. So we follow the Quran first, and if there is a disagreement amongst scholars on a particular issue, the ruling is you are free to follow whatever scholar you choose, meaning of course someone reputable that you trust , not sheikh google. |
I see. So your argument is, is it not, that practice matters when referring to hadith and shariah, but does not matter when referring to the Quran? Is that the gist of it? Then please, o the enlightened one, cite for us what the Quran says on women-initiated divorces. Please also tell us when the last change to shariah was made, with dates, if possible. |
Why is this one better than the one I cited?
Source: http://www.questionsonislam.com/question/unable-accept-khula-wife Why are you deflecting the argument to khul when we are talking about husband-initiated divorces? That's number one. Number two is that of course the judge is not necessary if mutual agreement is in place. The whole discussion is what to do when no agreement is in place. And the answer is that the only ironclad around it is to put everything - everything you can think of - into your marital agreement. That's how you get around the judge and husband nonsense.
What does the Quran say on women-initiated divorces? |
Google it! Self-imposed ignorance isn't bliss and I don't have the patience, the will or time to educate you. |
That's 'cause you can't. |
Uhm.... okay ! |
Muslima,
Not sure how you can fault one poster for looking up information on Google and then tell another poster when she asks a question that she should Google it. Also, you dismissed PP's real life experience with her niece's divorce in KSA because it was the KSA but di not respond to the article posted showing how hard it can be for a Muslim woman in the US to find an imam who will agree to her request for a divorce. It is definitely not just KSA. |
It sounds like you're saying that the part about a man repeating the word "talaq" three times to his wife, and then he's divorced her, is "completely false." But wasn't that part of the post, at least, true? And a woman cannot divorce her husband by repeating "talaq" three times, instead she needs to go before a judge, right? Is all of this in the Quran, hadith or practice? |
Actually, that part was not true, Muslima is correct. The husband doesn't need to tell the wife she's divorced three times. Once is enough, if three months have passed and he did not change his mind, the divorce is final. And yes, a woman cannot divorce her husband unilaterally unless it is written in her marital agreement. Even then it would not be "I can divorce you by unilateral pronouncement". It would be something like "husband shall consent immediately to all requests for divorce made by wife." The right of divorce belongs to the "one who takes hold of the calf", i.e. the husband. Women-initiated divorces require consent of husband or ruling by the judge. |
Also, I've know at least one case where the man said talaq three times in front of a witness (wife was not present) and the divorce counted. The wife's family used their influence to make him lose a position he had recently been appointed to. |