How can they do that? It doesn't sound legal.. |
Yes, whatever this "best efforts" clause says, it certainly does not prevent the property from changing hands. The seller no longer owns the house and the buyer does. Plus, in this case, the seller is simply playing games to try to nullify the contract. Once it closes, the seller's game is over. |
You don't know what it says and given that an attorney told the seller to how to proceed, it must safeguard the seller's ability to stay in the house after the close. |
Ownership and possession are not the same thing... |
Well, agree to disagree. There are plenty of stupid attorneys that advise plenty of stupid things. If the "best efforts" clause prevents the property from passing, it nullifies the contract and money won't change hands. The clause does something less than that or the OP wouldn't be asking the question. Given that it is not a standard clause, the parties probably have differing opinions on exactly what the clause accomplishes. As a buyer, I would take possession of my property and leave the seller in a position of having to convince a court of the meaning of the "best efforts" clause. And I would counterclaim for trespass. |
Actually, any property professor worth his salt would let you know that there is a reason they say possession is 9/10 of the law. If I am inside the house with documents showing title, OP's cousin is the one who has to spend the time and money to try to get it back. |
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Ownership will change upon closing but the seller may have the right to continue to occupy the property.
It is not dissimilar to a rented house changing ownership and the tenant having the right to live there until the lease is up. |
It's similar in some ways to when a bank forecloses on a house. The judgment is entered and the bank owns the house but they still have to evict the previous owner. Here, the purchase agreement probably provides for attorney fees and court costs but the new owner still has to go through the system to eject the previous owner. |
Except there are statutory protections in a rental eviction or foreclosure eviction that create certain rights. If the seller has a clause saying the seller won't be in breach of the sales contract because some of the seller's possessions have not been moved despite "best efforts", whatever rights the seller might have are only as good as whatever the clause says and the clause is going to be governed by basic contract and property law. The seller doesn't have a lease and no longer owns the property. As I buyer, I would move my ass in and let the seller try to argue I don't have the right. |
You really need to just shut it. Clearly you were dumped by your lover who was a real estate agent and you have a vendetta. Cut this out. It makes you look weak and pathetic. |
| I agree with the PP who advised closing on the house and then, as the buyers, moving right in. So you, seller, say you have the right to remain? Welcome roommate! Meet my big hairy dog. Oh, did I mention that I fart a lot and I like to walk around naked? Seller may have a right to remain -- but this isn't a rental agreement and the new owner also has a right to move in. |
| I wonder if the buyer or her agent are reading this thread. .. |
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Dumb asks realtor here: situation happened to me in Virginia. My buyer performed under contract by showing up with funds and signing all required documents
The seller would not sign deed or perform under contract With my feeble, illiterate mind I advised buyer to sue seller for specific damages Five weeks later the buyer had the house and $26,000 from seller Seller paid buyer's legal costs of nearly $9,000 and court costs I am so stupid |
LOL. Another realtor here. I know, we're soooo stupid aren't we? And all lawyers are just so amazingly intelligent!!! I posted here that a buyer of mine had cold feet and hired an attorney who promptly did several things wrong that resulted in the buyer losing their earnest money. And it was a lot of money. We all had a good laugh at that attorney. She shouldn't have quit her day job!!! |
Makes no difference because the contract governs the transaction. |