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I'm doing my first medicated IUI cycle. I have mild decreased ovarian reserve. I have undetectable AMH but good AFC and good hormone levels of everything else.
I'm wondering how/why IVF would be more successful than medicated IUI for someone with DOR who probably won't respond that well to stims in either case. My Dr. estimated that I would produce 3-4 eggs max with an IVF cycle. With medicated IUI I may produce 2. I am not interested in doing ICSI if I do try an IVF cycle, so ICSI isn't in the picture for us. Interested in hearing people's thoughts. |
| Statistically, yes, an average woman has about a 15% success rate with IUI and 40% success rate with IVF. |
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the problem with that, PP, is that statistically an average woman would be producing 8-20 eggs via IVF, whereas a DOR woman might produce 3-4.
My RE said that IVF probably wouldn't give me any better odds than just trying for blind luck. (AMH of 0.02) I got pregnant with a singleton on my first clomid timed intercourse cycle (my insurance covered TI but not IUI), but unfortunately lost the pregnancy due to chromosomal issues. Ultimately, OP, you'll probably find that the main advantage of IVF is the ability to potentially find a genetically normal embryo without having to go through two and a half months of gestating first. YMMV. |
I am with you on this. I also ditched IVF - it didn't work in my case while IUI did. If you have ok tubes and no male Factor, respond poorly and won't do ICSI I too don't see why would IVF be so much more advantageous especially given the number of IUIs vs IVFs you can do. |