Wait, I didn't say that I personally believe that a low gains rate is particularly effective in accomplishing that goal. I am trying to represent one point of view for the sake of this discussion, leaving aside the question of how well it works. If you want to prove that low capital gains rates increases the level of investment capital, you'll have to make that case on your own. More importantly though, Mitt Romney's income from his Bain years was paid as carried interest. He paid taxes on that at a capital gains rate, even though it was his labor and not his capital that earned him that interest. Frankly I think that's a complete ripoff that America Labor is labor, capital is capital and you shouldn't get to have it both ways just because you run a hedge fund or VC firm. I say this recognizing that some good friends would see their tax bills double if this ever changed. |
Now you're getting into a different area of tax policy: Active investment versus passive investment, as well as risk. It is true the interest you earn is subject to double tax. But, earning interest is a passive activity, with little or no risk. As such, the policymakers decided it doesn't merit a tax inducement. Investing in stocks, on the other hand, is riskier and more active. It's an "investment" rather than a return on "savings." That's the rationale, anyway. I'm not endorsing, just trying to explain. |
I have never in my life heard that explanation and it makes little sense. Investment can be financed through debt or equity. The idea that we are going to give preferential tax treatment to equity investments because it is "riskier" is bad economics and bad tax policy. The fact is that most of these special tax rules exist because people have the political pull to get them, and they make up these bogus explanations after the fact (or to get the preferential treatment in the first place). There was a while when cap gains and ordinary income rates were the same but it didn't last long thanks to the lobbyists/wealthy. |
Well, the other reason is whoever's paying the interest is deducting it. So, it makes sense that it would be taxable to the recipient, the same way wages are deductible by an employer and taxable to the worker. |
20:51 here. Thanks for this explanation! Here's what I'm wondering now - I see that there is an argument for setting tax rates this way but what seems to have disappeared is the claim that there is double taxation. It appears that the truth is, whatever the tax structure, it is all about social engineering - trying to make certain things happen by encouraging it or discouraging it via the tax system (eg, charitable contributions, mortgage tax deduction). That's legitimate - although I may disagree with one or another particular form of social engineering. But what some people have been arguing is that there is double taxation which certainly sounds to me like an unfair situation. But I'm not seeing that in your explanation and it makes me wonder if those folks actually have a legitimate complaint. What do you think, pp? |
12:04,
Consider that the last time the tax code was rewritten was in 1986. The word wasn't as global as it was now. The tax-exempt sector wasn't as big as it is now. Tax-exempt institutional investors and foreign investments don't give two hoots about our domestic tax systems. They're not paying taxes on dividends earned, and their not paying U.S. capital gains taxes, either. That changes the policy question somewhat. |
Interest is fully taxable because whoever paid you the interest gets to deduct it.
Companies can't deduct dividends paid. |