Anonymous wrote:Anonymous wrote:Anonymous wrote:Anonymous wrote:Nurse here who has given Narcan a few times, none due to medical negligence. And I'm certainly not one to say negligence doesn't occur, as I've seen it first hand.
All the experiences I've had given it have been for reasons 2358 stated. They've been given an appropriate dose, maybe on the high end of appropriate but still ok, but are too sedated. I've never had to give it for respiratory distress, all the times have been basically because a patient becomes so sedated they aren't responding appropriately. Managing post op pain in elderly can be difficult.
I wouldn't immediately jump to medical negligence or respiratory problems. What he should do is request all his records so he has drug, dose, and time administered.
What does “intended side effects of narcotics” mean? If I’m reading your post correctly 2358’s unintended reference is what you’re saying where a patient receives the appropriate dosage but for whatever reason doesn’t respond well.
Also, if a patient is too sedated, are they not able to eventually come out of that state on their own?
TIA.
It’s not that the patient isn’t responding “well” per se it’s just whether the intended effect is achieved. Say morphine is administered to take the edge off of some pain but the effects are stronger than anticipated and the patient is falling asleep and totally out of it. It’s not that it’s bad or dangerous but the patient doesn’t need to be so sedated and so the effects need to be reversed. Sure, they would eventually come out of it on their own but that might not be ideal for whatever reason.
This is really interesting, I didn’t realize Narcan can be used that way. Are there any extra protocols that to be followed if narcan is given to someone that is oversedated? For example my understanding is you administer Narcan at home to your husband that ODs, he still should be immediately taken to the ER. Do the sedated patients end up with increased monitoring?
Anonymous wrote:Anonymous wrote:Nurse here who has given Narcan a few times, none due to medical negligence. And I'm certainly not one to say negligence doesn't occur, as I've seen it first hand.
All the experiences I've had given it have been for reasons 2358 stated. They've been given an appropriate dose, maybe on the high end of appropriate but still ok, but are too sedated. I've never had to give it for respiratory distress, all the times have been basically because a patient becomes so sedated they aren't responding appropriately. Managing post op pain in elderly can be difficult.
I wouldn't immediately jump to medical negligence or respiratory problems. What he should do is request all his records so he has drug, dose, and time administered.
What does “intended side effects of narcotics” mean? If I’m reading your post correctly 2358’s unintended reference is what you’re saying where a patient receives the appropriate dosage but for whatever reason doesn’t respond well.
Also, if a patient is too sedated, are they not able to eventually come out of that state on their own?
TIA.
Anonymous wrote:Anonymous wrote:Anonymous wrote:Nurse here who has given Narcan a few times, none due to medical negligence. And I'm certainly not one to say negligence doesn't occur, as I've seen it first hand.
All the experiences I've had given it have been for reasons 2358 stated. They've been given an appropriate dose, maybe on the high end of appropriate but still ok, but are too sedated. I've never had to give it for respiratory distress, all the times have been basically because a patient becomes so sedated they aren't responding appropriately. Managing post op pain in elderly can be difficult.
I wouldn't immediately jump to medical negligence or respiratory problems. What he should do is request all his records so he has drug, dose, and time administered.
What does “intended side effects of narcotics” mean? If I’m reading your post correctly 2358’s unintended reference is what you’re saying where a patient receives the appropriate dosage but for whatever reason doesn’t respond well.
Also, if a patient is too sedated, are they not able to eventually come out of that state on their own?
TIA.
It’s not that the patient isn’t responding “well” per se it’s just whether the intended effect is achieved. Say morphine is administered to take the edge off of some pain but the effects are stronger than anticipated and the patient is falling asleep and totally out of it. It’s not that it’s bad or dangerous but the patient doesn’t need to be so sedated and so the effects need to be reversed. Sure, they would eventually come out of it on their own but that might not be ideal for whatever reason.
Anonymous wrote:Anonymous wrote:Nurse here who has given Narcan a few times, none due to medical negligence. And I'm certainly not one to say negligence doesn't occur, as I've seen it first hand.
All the experiences I've had given it have been for reasons 2358 stated. They've been given an appropriate dose, maybe on the high end of appropriate but still ok, but are too sedated. I've never had to give it for respiratory distress, all the times have been basically because a patient becomes so sedated they aren't responding appropriately. Managing post op pain in elderly can be difficult.
I wouldn't immediately jump to medical negligence or respiratory problems. What he should do is request all his records so he has drug, dose, and time administered.
What does “intended side effects of narcotics” mean? If I’m reading your post correctly 2358’s unintended reference is what you’re saying where a patient receives the appropriate dosage but for whatever reason doesn’t respond well.
Also, if a patient is too sedated, are they not able to eventually come out of that state on their own?
TIA.
Anonymous wrote:Nurse here who has given Narcan a few times, none due to medical negligence. And I'm certainly not one to say negligence doesn't occur, as I've seen it first hand.
All the experiences I've had given it have been for reasons 2358 stated. They've been given an appropriate dose, maybe on the high end of appropriate but still ok, but are too sedated. I've never had to give it for respiratory distress, all the times have been basically because a patient becomes so sedated they aren't responding appropriately. Managing post op pain in elderly can be difficult.
I wouldn't immediately jump to medical negligence or respiratory problems. What he should do is request all his records so he has drug, dose, and time administered.
Anonymous wrote:Anonymous wrote:
Johns Hopkins University says “Avoidable Medical Errors” are the third leading cause of death (greater than 250,000 per year) after heart disease and cancer.
“The CDC’s way of collecting national health statistics FAILS to classify medical errors separately on the death certificate.”
Yikes!!!!!
Ok, well OP's FIL didn't die.
Anonymous wrote:Anonymous wrote:This is not uncommon in the hospital setting esp when titrating pain meds or if the patient has a pca. I don’t think this necessarily means there was a medical error.
You seem confused.
Anonymous wrote:Well that means he stopped breathing