Anonymous wrote:
Anonymous wrote:
Anonymous wrote:
Anonymous wrote:No unless it's health related.
Why would this make a difference?
Are you that stupid?
DP. I'll bite. My DH began developing ED when he was in his mid-40s. By the time he was 50, he could no longer get an erection. It took DH a while to see a urologist but he did and made significant efforts to address it - to no avail. So, for the last 5 years, we've had no PIV. I'm willing to accept that because our lack of PIV was not a unilateral decision, we are affectionate with each other and we engage in other sex-related activities - not with the frequency we used to and usually at my instigation. But, DH is always responsive and an active participant.
Do I miss PIV? Sure, I do. We used to have incredible, frequent sex - best I ever had! If I were in my 20s/30s, no sex would be a dealbreaker for me no matter the reason. But, that's not where I'm at. DH is a great, considerate partner and if he could change the situation, he would. THAT is why a sexless marriage because of health reasons is different than a sexless marriage because one person, unilaterally, decided not to make an effort to meet the needs of his/her partner. It's a level of disregard that breaks a relationship. My DH has high regard for me and our relationship.