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[quote=Anonymous][quote=Anonymous][quote=Anonymous][quote=Anonymous][quote=Anonymous][quote=Anonymous]Jesus talks about homosexuality indirectly:

Matthew 19:4–6
"4 He answered, “Have you not read that [b]he who created them from the beginning made them male and female[/b], 5 and said, ‘Therefore a man shall leave his father and his mother and hold fast to his wife, and the two shall become one flesh’? 6 So they are no longer two but one flesh. What therefore God has joined together, let not man separate."

Matthew 15:19–20:
"19 For out of the heart come evil thoughts, murder, adultery, sexual immorality, theft, false witness, slander. 20 These are what defile a person. But to eat with unwashed hands does not defile anyone.”

Notice that "adultery" and "sexual immorality" are separated.  In this case, what does "sexual immorality" refer to?  Who was Jesus addressing at the time? 
In Matthew 15, Jesus was addressing the Pharisees, and to them homosexuality was immoral.  So, one can conclude that "sexual immorality" here does include homosexuality.

Again, folks, you have to read the Bible versus within its context, who He was addressing.[/quote]

"Sexual immorality" could easily be pre-marital sex or pedophelia. The Pharisees thought these were immoral too. It would be a big leap to conclude that that passage is only or even partially about homosexuality.
[/quote]

It's not a leap.  [b]I stated[/b] it includes homosexuality, not that "sexual immorality" only =  homosexuality.  Pharisees were Jews, and they knew that homosexuality was condemned, just as yes, beastiality was condemned, too.[/quote]

Yes, you "stated" this, but your reading of this passage is very different from how others read it. You can "state" what you think about this set of words, but others of us don't see much there about homosexuality. For one thing, why didn't the author just say the word "homosexuality" if that's what he really meant?[/quote]

because he was including all kinds of sexual immorality, like beastiality.  Why didn't the author state "beastiality" separately, then.  Because it was lumped together.[/quote]

You simply can't insert words where they don't exist. Whether its bestiality or homosexuality, in a debate this would be labeled a logical fallacy. [/quote]

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