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Reply to "What does it mean that ISIS "beheads" its victims?"
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[quote=Anonymous]Yes, it is ISIS that has trashed Islam. They are the ones saying that because there is a Quranic passage saying slay all unbelievers wherever you find them, they can do just that in the name of Islam. When a non-Muslim has the temerity to point out that the Quran does in fact say that and that there is a group claiming to be Islamic using that as their motto, and thus a problem is posed to Muslims not of the ISIS persuasion that they would do well to address, they are then attacked for being presumptuous and ignorant for not understanding the historical context. Sorry--we know the historical context but ISIS does not appear to think this is purely a contextual message but rather a passage good for all times and all places. And the non-ISIS Muslimes, say yes the Quran is eternal and is good for all times and places, but this particular passage has to be taken SOLELY in its historical context. Why if the Quran is eternal and good for all times and for all places? Sorry for saying Muslims "need" to address this. That maybe presumptuous and a poor choice of words but there is a clear contradiction here and more than a flavor of wanting to eat your cake and have it too. But I can say if Muslims who are horrified by ISIS don't face up to the problem and rather respond in an equivocal way others are naturally going to think these Muslims actually sympathize with what ISIS is saying. You can say they shouldn't all you want, but the fact is that is a natural conclusion unless a view is taken that different passages of the Quran were revealed in response to historical situations faced by the earlier Islamic community and have nor or little relevance to any situation today--in other words, that those passages are not timeless in the sense that they have universal applicability through time. If that point is ceded, what does that mean about the rest of the Quran? Or is it selectively good for all times and places, and how do you choose which passages fit into which category? Persian hand has nothing to do with Persian. It means writing Arabic script (which is used for Persian as well) without the dots which distinguish different phoenemes among letters that use the same shape. The Quran was written down in Persian hand. Using dots to distinguish two consonants (or even up to five) from one another was not done until after the death of Muhammed. Without dots, the written words for "girl" and "house", for example, are identical. Obviously context provides clues, but there still can be a wide difference of opinion on which word is meant. There is also the missing short vowel problem, although that makes less difference with regard to meaning as a general matter.[/quote]
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