Reply to An interesting revelation: Homosexuality references in the Bible are recent and modern

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[quote=Anonymous][quote=Anonymous][quote=Anonymous][quote=Anonymous][quote=Anonymous][quote=Anonymous][quote=Anonymous]Regarding the sin of Sodom and Gomorrah, you should all read the text. The LORD had already decided to wipe them off the face of the earth for the sin that already existed in them. They were not punished specifically for the episode with Lot and the guests and any inhospitality. [b]It was the sexual sins rampant in Sodom and Gomorrah [/b]already that brought God's condemnation down, and it was this sin that led to every thing else recounted in this event. Makes it much harder to argue that the sin was inhospitality.[/quote]

I am looking at 18:20, and it says "chatatam" from the root Het, sin.  Nothing specifically sexual.  Where are you reading something about sexual sin in that verse? [/quote]
Jude 7: "Just as Sodom and Gomorrah and the surrounding cities, which likewise indulged in sexual immorality and pursued unnatural desire, serve as an example by undergoing a punishment of eternal fire."[/quote]
AGAIN, you are quoting a translated version, not the original Greek text, which can be slightly different. I am learning more and more of the slight differences and nuances from the original text to English from my pastor's sermons, and I am a 40+ year, every Sunday, Sunday school teacher, sing in the choir, church goer.  There is a lot of "lost in translation" in the current Bible.  People need to understand cultural context, as well.[/quote]

Well to be fair, we have to read a translation since few if any of us can read ancient Greek.  Do you have an opinion on which of the many translations of the Bible is most accurate?[/quote]
ITA.. and that is why it's important for pastors and Bible teachers to have studied not just the original Greek and Hebrew texts, but understand the cultural context of what was written.

As to what is the most accurate translation?.. That's the problem, that it seems like there really isn't one.  There are some Bibles that have notes and commentaries about the versus that attempts to explain the cultural context, etc.  These are usually study Bibles.

I was once told by a pastor that the Bible paraphrases a lot from the original text,, in part, because there is no direct translation in English of those words, and sometimes, that slight paraphrasing and nuance can change the meaning of the verse.[/quote]

OP here.  Did either of you read the links from my OP?  The scholars that wrote those articles explained why they translated the words differently than what was written in the RSV from the 1940s.  I think it is a compelling argument.[/quote]

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