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Reply to "Calculating how much to claim for portion of house value during divorce"
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[quote=Anonymous][quote=Anonymous][quote=Anonymous][quote=Anonymous][quote=Anonymous]OP here. I don't have any of the mortgage documents and it may take a long while to get access to them. Is there some decent way to at least come up with a rough estimate of how much equity would have been paid down between year X and year Y? I know the initial purchase price, I am guessing the down payment amount was about 20%. I also know how the house value changed over time, and roughly what the monthly mortgage payment was. I think it is a 30-year mortgage, like most mortgages. I can probably look up historical interest rates and take a guess at the interest rate too. Does it make sense that I can come up with a reasonable rough figure by plugging all that into some formula, or are there just too many unknowns?[/quote] I mean, the obvious answer would be to run an amortization table right? Also, I agree with the previous posters that you would only be entitled to a % of the total appreciation based upon the equity you contributed. That portion of the appreciation attributable to his pre-marriage ownership interest would be his.[/quote] Why? Appreciation on a house has nothing to do with the amount of equity in a house. I am not OP, just think it is an interesting question. Why should now much equity in a house matter for purposes of appreciation. If I buy a house for 500k and put down 10% and sell the house 7 years later for 900 k, I get that 400k. I don't get 10% plus how much ever equity I have paid the bank.[/quote] Because if he owned the house 100% [b]prior to the marriage [/b]he would be entitled to all of the appreciation so you have to split out that portion of the appreciation attributable to his pre-marital interest. The example you provided is inapplicable for numerous reasons.[/quote] PP here, sorry, edited to clarify.[/quote]
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