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Reply to "Did Christian homophobia come from a mistranslation of the Bible?"
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[quote=Anonymous]DP. It's obviously correct to say that all churches' teaching prior to mid-20th century regarded homosexual behavior as sinful. As I understand it, OP and her sources are focussing on the New Testament. We all agree Jesus said nothing on the subject. The only other New Testament passage is from Paul, but the Guardian piece disputes the translation. Which if correct would leave nothing in the New Testament against homosexuality. If that's the case, then Christians who condemn homosexuality have to fall back on the Old Testament--Leviticus, Sodom and Gomorrah, although the Adam Erickson piece somebody posted disputes them, too. Point is, if you knock off the New Testament, then only Bible literalists who think everything in the Old Testament is God's word would still have a basis for homophobia. Few Christians today are Bible literalists. As a pp pointed out, the Old Testament also has father-daughter incest. There's a third source, which is cultural biases. Undoubtedly these affected Aquinas, Luther, etc, although they did find supposed "authority" in the Bible. But culture is changing, thank goodness.[/quote]
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