Reply to Did Christian homophobia come from a mistranslation of the Bible?

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[quote=Anonymous][quote=Anonymous]Christian condemnation of homosexual behavior did not materialize out of the ectoplasm in 1946.

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+1. I'm affirming Christian, my own denomination and parish both perform same-sex marriages, and my priest is a woman married to a woman. I think there are ways of being affirming while also taking scripture seriously, but I also think these attempts to make Christian opposition to homosexuality late in time and grounded purely in a particular word here or there make the problem seem much simpler than it is. John Chrysostom was writing in the 300s about how men having sex with each other is a worse sin than murder. Aquinas crafted a Christian sexual ethic that condemned homosexuality without any reference to the passage talked about here at all. Romans 1 does get a mention, but I don't think it's particularly crucial to his argument. Luther said homosexuality was of the devil, and none of these Christians were influenced by an English translation from the 1940s. Arguments like this feel like a sort of "Catholic Bishops hate him! Rid Christianity of its homophobic history with this one weird trick!" when the problem is actually much deeper than that and demands a more serious response. [/quote]

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