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Hello! Below is the straight answer from one of our lenders (I am a mortgage broker):
Honestly, not 100% sure. But if everything to you makes sense and doesn’t smell like occupancy fraud (ie. Saying it’s a primary to refi at a primary rate), then I can’t imagine that there’d be any adverse action taken. That lender will more than likely find out when a new homestead is filed. Every lender is different though, and transparency is always a good thing. MUCH better to ask for permission than forgiveness with finances 😊 To me, it sounds like something we can do. We’ll probably want an LOX to explain the point of refinancing as a primary, then 2 months later making it a rental. |
I think the main res flag is that this does smell a little bit like occupancy fraud. The details matter in this case. |
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it happens. Several years ago I closed on a primary residence in March. Found out in August my employer wanted me to go overseas, and in December of the same year the place was a rental. No issues with Chase and I dont see why I couldnt have used the rental income to help obtain another mortgage.
There was no fraud. The mortgage happened with the intent of it being a primary residence but life happened |
| It happened with my friend too. Bought another place with low downpayment and better mortgage but never moved in because of personal reasons. He was qualified for a mortgage with a lease in his existing house which he had to cancel by paying some $s to the future tenant. He ended up never leaving his older place. He rented out the new place from month 1 or 2. Everything was fine; his situation really changed. |
So I was right! You hear the words your wife says...and you don't know what they mean. Thanks for confirming. Seriously man. There is so very much wrong with the above. But by all means leave poor OP alone with your nonsense. P.S. Good luck with you LLC. (LOL) |
More to add: Below is the additional answer from the underwriting support team from the lender: Underwrting guideline: "Applications for an owner occupied transaction after closing on a previous owner occupied transaction with [Lender] on a different property within the last 12 months will be ineligible. This guideline will not apply if the previous subject property has been sold or refinanced as a non-owner occupied residence. For owner occupied transactions, the borrower warrants they will occupy the property for at least 12 months." (Note: The above is talking about both the current loan and the new loan are with the same lender.) However, occupancy would still be a concern if the loan was done with another lender and would need to be considered for approval on a case by case basis. |